September 15th, 2008, 6:30 pm
Hi,If I remember correctly, in general the set of convergent sequences does not uniquely determine a topology (this can be proven). In the case of convergence of probability though, it is "well-known" that the functional d(X,Y)=E(f(X,Y)) where f(x,y)=|y-x| / (1 + |y-x|), defines a metric on the space of (classes of) real-valued random variables, and the associated convergence is the right one.