July 13th, 2009, 2:31 pm
Hello,Why fx option prices are quoted as function of delta (e.g. bbg function OVDV) while equity options are not?My assumption is that in fx markets, market participants easily agree on forwards, so there is only one unknown - volatility, which is quoted. While in equity markets, market participants do not necessarily agree on future dividend flows, thus neither on forwards. So, there are two unknowns - volatility and dividend yield, thus they quote just the prices of options as function of strike and not delta.Is that right?Thanks.