July 29th, 2012, 10:24 am
The problem is this: assuming that a cash flow follows GBM, and the cash flow is taken to be a payoff at certain intervals, then to calculate the value of that cash flow using the certainty equivalent form of the CAPM.I'm not talking about the cash flow as a type of flux, but rather just assuming that a cash flow is whatever the value of the GBM process is at t=1,2,3,...The certainty equivalent form of the CAPM requires as inputs: a) the risk free rate, b) the expected value of the cash flow, c) the market price of risk, and d) the covariance between the cash flow and the market return. a and b are easy, c is well known, d is the remaining challenge. If you assume that the market follows GBM as well, then you need the covariance between the value of the cash flow (= the value of the first GBM at time t), and the market return (which follows directly from the second GBM at time t). Hence you need the actual covariance of these, not the covariance of the log returns of the GBM process (which is trivially rho*sigA*sigB).