October 24th, 2013, 7:50 am
Hi,for simplicity, I started with the model of Leland's transaction costs and used the formulas in Paul Wilmott on Quantitative Finance, page 785. For a quick numerical check I assumed the following values:sigma = 20%dt = 1 / 365k = 1%But then the formula for long positions is infeasible since the part within the outer sqrt is negative. When I had a look in the orginal paper, I found that the 8 is actually a 2. Or am I missing something stupidly? Which formula ist correct?