January 30th, 2016, 3:35 pm
The answer is mixed and depends on the local unit of analysis and volume of hedging:Imagine an investment bank with zero risk -- it's a stretch but give it a try!1. Imagine the bank creates and sells an OTC instrument X to buyer A. If the payoff terms of the instrument are a function of unknown environmental variables (e.g. the market price of wheat in 6 months), then buyer A is exposed to Risk(X) and the bank is exposed to Risk(not(X))*. 2. To mitigate the bank's new risk, the bank might hedge it's exposure by purchasing one or more instruments from seller B that replicate Risk(X) and thus cancel the bank's risk.* Now buyer A is exposed to Risk(X) and seller B is exposed to Risk(not(X)).3. Now what if buyer A and seller B are economically linked either directly or indirectly. Perhaps buyer A bakes bread, worries that the price of wheat might be high in the future, and bought a contract from the bank to fix the future price of wheat. Perhaps seller B is a farmer, worried that the price of wheat might be low in the future, and sold a contract to fix the future price of wheat. Whether A and B transact directly or each buys and sells wheat at market prices (and uses their derivative contract to offset the market price back to some fixed price*) does not effect the outcome (although it is hugely important to the friction-free functioning of the system).Overall, event #1 seems to have created risk in the system, event #2 transferred that risk, and event #3 showed that events #1 and #2 may have actually eliminated risk.* This first analysis ignores counterparty risk!To the extent that the parties in the system might fail or choose not to fulfill their obligation (or the parties might disagree on the meaning of the contract terms), the risks of these instruments and transactions might be different than the parties expect.If wheat prices surge (e.g., hyperinflation), then the bread baker is going to demand that the bank pay the difference between the prevailing ultra-high market price and the contract's fixed price. But if the bank has failed in the economic turmoil, then the contract buyer isn't going to be paid. Even if the bank hedged the risk, bought a contract from seller B, and seller B pays the bank, buyer A would be just another creditor to the failed bank and might get pennies on the dollar.And this is where the entire risk creation/transfer process becomes much more complex. At one level, all of these transactions might be for the purposes of mitigating risks: buyer A bought the contract to hedge their risk exposure to wheat, the bank bought a contract from seller B to hedge it's exposure to the first contract, and seller B sold a contract to the bank for purposes of hedging their risk exposure to wheat. At that level, these activities benefit everyone and reduce everyone's risk. Yet to the extent that the players in the system think they can eliminate risks by hedging (which really is transferring risk), they may take on greater and greater volumes of business (especially if interest rates are near-zero). If the volume of business becomes unsustainable or some other severe shock affects the system, the counterparties may start to fail causing cascading failures through the system (e.g., 2008!).At low volumes, hedging stabilizes the system. At high volumes, it may destabilize the system.